PT 72 RC 21 Forum

[tskela]

I see the author's argument as follows:

P: no consensus
C: clinical equipoise > theoretical equipoise

Option A is the correct choice for weakening this argument, but I don't understand why. Option A invalidates the premise by saying "a treatment considered best by a consensus of relevant experts." The author's argument rests on the premise that there is "absence of consensus" which "is what makes clinical equipoise possible" and necessary over the more restrictive theoretical equipoise. But if you assume there IS consensus, as option A does, the author is no longer claiming anything. But that doesn't mean the argument he presents in paragraphs 3 and 4 is weakened from a validity standpoint.

I got to A by eliminating the other choices but I want to understand it on a deeper level than just POE.