Prep 33, Section 1, #11 Forum

[soyeonjeon]

Why is the answer not D?

[bitsy]

Because the argument says that caffeine can be as physically addictive as other psychoactive substances. This doesn't mean that most psychoactive substances have similar side effects if one is physically addicted to them.

The answer is E because if "as many people consume caffeine as consume any one of the other psychoactive substances," then no other physically addictive psychoactive substance can be consumed be a greater number of people than consume caffeine.

[ws81086n]

All that's indicated by the stimulus is that caffeine withdrawal results in those symptoms. Doesn't state or imply anything about the withdrawal symptoms of other psychoactive substances. (E) does logically follow, because the last line of the stimulus explicitly states that caffeine is consumed by as many people as consume any other psychoactive, addictive substance.

[Scotchandsoda]

All that's indicated by the stimulus is that caffeine withdrawal results in those symptoms. Doesn't state or imply anything about the withdrawal symptoms of other psychoactive substances. (E) does logically follow, because the last line of the stimulus explicitly states that caffeine is consumed by as many people as consume any other psychoactive, addictive substance.

on top of that, the stimulus says that "SOME" people experience those symptoms. So you can't conclude D.

[boblawlob]

D is wrong because one doesn't necessarily become "unusually depressed." They can also either be "drowsy" or "irritable."