I just read this in the Logical Reasoning Bible "Since the February 1992 LSAT... If there is no mention of flawed reasoning in the question stem, the reasoning in the stimulus is valid (and vice versa)."
Is this a fact? Did LSAT come out and say this or is this purely the observation of Killoran?
Thanks,
James
Parallel Reasoning Forum
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Re: Parallel Reasoning
Just found out the answer to my question. Never mind 
