Lolek wrote:
1. So this doesn't exist for a W in a civil case? Also, the question said teacher hired student to kill husband. Student was overheard telling friend he just made an easy 100K knocking off the guy. Friend is gonna testify to this. This was the answer but there was no corroborating evidence mentioned only the statement to the friend.
Statement against penal interest only requires corroborating evidence when it is offered in criminal case. Again though, remember that if we're talking about a criminal case, a party would only be offered an unavailable declarant's statement against penal interest against a non-defendant, since the prosecution can always use the much easier-to-satisfy admission by party opponent exemption to hearsay instead of this exception. An example of this exception in a criminal case would be if the defendant claimed a different person had confessed to the police and then disappeared and now the cops can't find the guy.
As for when it's a civil case, statement against penal interest can be offered without corroborating evidence.
2. I'm not sure what you mean, can you give an example?
There's been a lot of talk ITT about questions where a judge seemingly reverses the prosecution's burden of proof and places it on the defendant. The confusion arises out of a misunderstanding of the hypo. Under the Constitution, the prosecution must
always prove all of the elements of its burden of proof for a criminal allegation, and the defendant can never have the burden of disproving a stated element of the prosecution's burden.
Ex: In a common law murder case, the prosecution must always prove that there was malice or intent.
However, the defendant may constitutionally be given a burden of proof of his own if it is not an element of the prosecution's case. Take, for example, a self-defense affirmative defense. In such a case, the defendant is necessarily admitting "You're right, I killed this other person with malice. You have met your burden of proof. But I had a legal justification to do it." Unless stated otherwise in the question, the lack of a legal justification is not part of the prosecution's burden of proof, so the defendant may lawfully be required to prove his justification.
Another example: To prevail on a charge of rape in State A, the prosecution must prove that the defendant had intercourse with a woman who was not his wife, against her consent. Let's say the defendant argues "First, she was my wife, so that element is unsatisfied, and also I reasonably believed she consented." His first argument is a requirement of the prosecution's burden to prove that she was not his wife, so the defendant cannot be required to prove she was not his wife. But the second argument is different from the prosecution's burden. The prosecution has to prove she did not give consent; they do not need to prove that the defendant believed there was no consent. So the judge may properly require the defendant to prove his belief that there was consent.
4. I was referring to the builder disclaiming to the couple having the house built, I'm assuming the answer is no.
Yeah, I've never heard of a fact pattern where a contractor tried to disclaim any kind of warranty, now that I think of it. Wouldn't worry.
5. I meant Ks warranties of fitness for particular purpose and title. Also, I thought you can't disclaim express warranties period, not only if you're a merchant. Btw, you can disclaim them all orally too right?
I'd just review the long outline portion on this. It's like a page or so. I don't trust myself to get it right verbatim.