I am a little bit hung up on this issue: If states have the power to create their same sex marriage laws, ban, not ban whatever, then how do federal courts have the power to overturn say a state that has just allowed same sex marriage. I get that the federal court is the law of the land so it naturally overrides state law, but what piece of the puzzle am I missing.
Thanks.
Con Law State v. Fed Gov question Forum
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Re: Con Law State v. Fed Gov question
my bad this is in the wrong spot