Implied grant v. Implied reservation Forum

[sknight323]

Is there even a difference between the two? I feel retarded.

[sheD]

Reservation benefits the grantor (original owner) while grant benefits the grantee (new purchaser) of a subdivided lot. Some jurisdictions don't allow implied reservations, with the rationale that if the grantor wants some benefit from the transfer, it is her obligation to put it in the deed. If that's the case, the only way the grantor could get an implied easement is through necessity.

[sknight323]

Thanks. So to make this clear, a common owner of a lot can make an implied grant of an easement through either necessity or prior use if he splits the lot up to two separate owners? You can only reserve something for yourself by necessity in some jurisdictions, e.g., I have a lot and sell half of it to A. But now I am landlocked and need to cross A's lot to get to a road (assuming the elements of an easement by necessity are met), this is an example of implied reservation by necessity?

[apl6783]

In some jurisdictions, if it's an implied RESERVATION, and the easement was implied from prior use, then strict necessity is required (instead of the normal reasonable necessity). This is the case in Texas.