Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5? Forum
Forum rules
Anonymous Posting
Anonymous posting is only appropriate when you are revealing sensitive employment related information about a firm, job, etc. You may anonymously respond on topic to these threads. Unacceptable uses include: harassing another user, joking around, testing the feature, or other things that are more appropriate in the lounge.
Failure to follow these rules will get you outed, warned, or banned.
Anonymous Posting
Anonymous posting is only appropriate when you are revealing sensitive employment related information about a firm, job, etc. You may anonymously respond on topic to these threads. Unacceptable uses include: harassing another user, joking around, testing the feature, or other things that are more appropriate in the lounge.
Failure to follow these rules will get you outed, warned, or banned.
-
- Posts: 432496
- Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 9:32 am
Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
I'll be heading to a market leading practice that is not highly ranked on vault.
Is it ever possible to lateral up? And if so, what does it usually require?
Is it ever possible to lateral up? And if so, what does it usually require?
- LaLiLuLeLo
- Posts: 949
- Joined: Wed Jun 08, 2016 11:54 am
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
God forbid you aren't at a V5! Why would you ever work at a firm that's guaranteed career suicide???
- rpupkin
- Posts: 5653
- Joined: Mon Dec 09, 2013 10:32 pm
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
The general formula for lateraling is:
(V/Y) * B
V = Vault Rank of Current Firm
Y = Class Year
B = Chambers Band
To take an example, let's say you're currently a third-year associate at a V30 in a Band 1 practice group:
(30/3) * 1 = 10.
That means you can lateral to a V10!
Now, let's take a more junior associate at a less prestigious firm—say, a second-year associate at a V40 in a Band 3 practice group.:
(40/2) * 3 = 60
The most this associate can hope for is to lateral to a V60.
(V/Y) * B
V = Vault Rank of Current Firm
Y = Class Year
B = Chambers Band
To take an example, let's say you're currently a third-year associate at a V30 in a Band 1 practice group:
(30/3) * 1 = 10.
That means you can lateral to a V10!

Now, let's take a more junior associate at a less prestigious firm—say, a second-year associate at a V40 in a Band 3 practice group.:
(40/2) * 3 = 60
The most this associate can hope for is to lateral to a V60.

-
- Posts: 430
- Joined: Thu Feb 07, 2013 9:51 am
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
Poster above's forumula is largely correct, but there are other variables involved such as pro bono opportunities, culture and partner's dick size to take into account.rpupkin wrote:The general formula for lateraling is:
(V/Y) * B
V = Vault Rank of Current Firm
Y = Class Year
B = Chambers Band
To take an example, let's say you're currently a third-year associate at a V30 in a Band 1 practice group:
(30/3) * 1 = 10.
That means you can lateral to a V10!![]()
Now, let's take a more junior associate at a less prestigious firm—say, a second-year associate at a V40 in a Band 3 practice group.:
(40/2) * 3 = 60
The most this associate can hope for is to lateral to a V60.
-
- Posts: 432496
- Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 9:32 am
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
This formula is interesting. Regarding vault ranking, is it the general or city specific?
For example, if I'm at Arnold & Porter in DC, but doing corporate rather than antitrust for two years, would my score be:
(5/2) * 2 = 5. Because they're ranked 5th in DC but band 2 for Corp. in chambers.
Or
(25/2) * 2 = 25
I like the first one better.
For example, if I'm at Arnold & Porter in DC, but doing corporate rather than antitrust for two years, would my score be:
(5/2) * 2 = 5. Because they're ranked 5th in DC but band 2 for Corp. in chambers.
Or
(25/2) * 2 = 25
I like the first one better.
Want to continue reading?
Register now to search topics and post comments!
Absolutely FREE!
Already a member? Login
- nealric
- Posts: 4390
- Joined: Fri Sep 25, 2009 9:53 am
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
I appreciate the laughrpupkin wrote:The general formula for lateraling is:
(V/Y) * B
V = Vault Rank of Current Firm
Y = Class Year
B = Chambers Band
To take an example, let's say you're currently a third-year associate at a V30 in a Band 1 practice group:
(30/3) * 1 = 10.
That means you can lateral to a V10!![]()
Now, let's take a more junior associate at a less prestigious firm—say, a second-year associate at a V40 in a Band 3 practice group.:
(40/2) * 3 = 60
The most this associate can hope for is to lateral to a V60.

Bravo sir/madam!

-
- Posts: 75
- Joined: Sat Mar 28, 2015 9:06 pm
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
It's all true. I tried to round down from my 25.57 to 25. No one really notices that stuff right? who would ever know or care. I mean it's basically an even 25 anyways. If it wasn't for that one stupid adjunct professor in HR deferring me for 3 months I would have been in year 3.
Well now a few weeks after swinging my DREAM FIRM of jones day Cleveland they checked my transcript and I'm facing a C&F inquiry and disbarment.
Do. Not. Round.
Well now a few weeks after swinging my DREAM FIRM of jones day Cleveland they checked my transcript and I'm facing a C&F inquiry and disbarment.
Do. Not. Round.
- KMart
- Posts: 4369
- Joined: Wed Jul 02, 2014 1:25 am
Re: Going from lower ranked, but Band 1 to V5?
Rp has been on a roll recently.