ITT: Explain the 11th Amendment to me Forum

[JDizzle2015]

Picked up the Constitution because I haven't read it since high school and was stumped by the 11th Amendment.

"The Judicial power of the United States shall not be construed to extend to any suit in law or equity, commenced or prosecuted against one of the United States by Citizens of another State, or by Citizens or Subjects of any Foreign State."

Doesn't that mean federal courts' power cannot be extended to a law suit brought by a citizen of one state on another state? (Even though, it is my understanding, that's the exact opposite of what the 11th Amendment did...)

What am I missing here? I'm in trouble for law school.

[JDizzle2015]

Lol sach, ninja'd me.

I was thinking the same thing but the specification of "foreign" in the last part makes me think States in the first part is referring to domestic states.

[sach1282]

Haha, sorry. I didn't want to end up being wrong and having the hive mind crucify me. I agree with you both on the initial conclusion and the doubts, I had the same train of thought.

[sidhesadie]

It's sovereign immunity for the state. Federal court's power extends to a citizen of one state suing a citizen of another state...that's diversity jurisdiction...that isn't what this is talking about, it's talking about suing the state itself. That immunity can be abrogated (like when a state allows suit against it for certain torts)... You can't use federal courts to sue a state, because the state is sovereign (again, with some exceptions)
I'm oversimplifying so I'm sure someone might come along and use more words.

Is that what you're asking?

[JDizzle2015]

It's sovereign immunity for the state. Federal court's power extends to a citizen of one state suing a citizen of another state...that's diversity jurisdiction...that isn't what this is talking about, it's talking about suing the state itself. That immunity can be abrogated (like when a state allows suit against it for certain torts)... You can't use federal courts to sue a state, because the state is sovereign (again, with some exceptions)
I'm oversimplifying so I'm sure someone might come along and use more words.

Is that what you're asking?

Yes, perfect! That's very helpful.

I was confused because I thought there were federal court cases where X person was suing Y state. So you're saying that they can sue only when the state they are suing have given up parts of their immunity?

(Thanks for the explanation!)