I can't seem to figure out what the difference is between contributions and expenditures in the reasoning of Buckley... The Court reasoned, according to Chemerinsky, that expenditure limits are a substantial restraint on political speech, while contribution limits have little direct restraint on political speech. Why? I don't get it... HELP!
Thanks in advance to you Con Law geniuses.
(Study Tips, Dealing With Stress, Maintaining a Social Life, Financial Aid, Internships, Bar Exam, Careers in Law . . . )
1 post • Page 1 of 1
- Posts: 82
- Joined: Tue Feb 28, 2012 4:36 pm
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: Bing [Bot] and 8 guests