I can't seem to figure out what the difference is between contributions and expenditures in the reasoning of Buckley... The Court reasoned, according to Chemerinsky, that expenditure limits are a substantial restraint on political speech, while contribution limits have little direct restraint on political speech. Why? I don't get it... HELP!
Thanks in advance to you Con Law geniuses.
Distinction between contributions and expenditures
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SammyJ
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- Joined: Tue Feb 28, 2012 4:36 pm
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