Let's say there is a statute "ABC." There is nothing in the statute that gives X a cause of action against anyone. X violates statute ABC. In my understanding, X can raise equal protection, due process, etc. as defenses to the statute.
My question is can X, as a plaintiff, sue for damages, or an injunction, for said equal protection, due process, etc. violations? Or does there need to be some statute that grants X the authority to bring a cause of action?
If so, can someone explain how this works? Like what are his damages going to be? Is it punitive damages? Injunction makes more sense to me, to prevent imminent and real future constitutional violations (assuming that he has standing, etc).
(Study Tips, Dealing With Stress, Maintaining a Social Life, Financial Aid, Internships, Bar Exam, Careers in Law . . . )
2 posts • Page 1 of 1
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 1 guest