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Hi, relevant sections:

PT 46, RC, passage 1:

This passage refers to the definition of prosperity, how it is gauged by different groups, and references an example of a town that protested harvest limitations because of the effect that could have on their incomes.

The economists' view is that prosperity be defined in monterary terms.



When I looked at this question (and still), they both (C + D) seemed correct to me. I couldn't see a strong way to falsify one over the other. Isn't the other citing a claim that posits that the value (monetary) can be guaged by the incomes (relative to what could be earned) of its residents?

Thanks

I am basing this reply only on the paragraph quoted in the original post; I haven't yet seen the entire passage.

D) is supported by the claim cited in the second sentence of the paragraph. With respect to C): The claims cited in the last two sentences say that the town's residents value the locale sufficiently to forgo higher incomes elsewhere, which implies the contrary of the answer choice.

I looked at the Spoiler after composing the preceding.

Thank you, your response at least led me to the strongest refutation I can come up with. It's not as direct a relationship between income and locale, possibly?

I still think it seems weak though. Their income is still being used as a way to gauge the locale's value. They're saying their incomes are lower than elsewhere, and therefore their not moving elsewhere is an indication of the locale's value.