pt 40, S.1, Q. 14 , "some critics claim that the power.."
Posted: Wed May 06, 2015 10:25 am
Hello,
I'm waffling between B/C here, and I don't see what makes (C) a better answer choice (even after looking at manhattan forums).
So here is me articulating the debate going on in my head.
(B) Isn't the argument assuming implicitly that when a wide range of opinions are being given that they are all being given adequate time, since he is using this claim as the foundation to support his entire argument? If this were not true, and he was simply stating a wide range of opinions are given - but some are given 5 seconds of coverage while others get entire segments devoted to them, wouldn't this be a pretty crappy claim to base his claim on?
I guess ultimately what I'm saying is, is this: hes assuming that wide range of coverage is sufficient to say media is not imposing opinions on people regarding important issues of the day - but if they are covered in the media in a skewed manner, it makes this point weak.
(C) I can see how this is happening. if the truth of claim one (major issues the media purveyed a range of opinion narrower than found among consumers of media, and claim two (then it would be true that the meia imposes opinions on people regarding important issues).
However, since the sufficient condition (first claim) is NOT true, he assumes that the necessary condition is not true, ultimately being a reversal flaw (negate sufficient simply means nothing triggers for the condition).
I guess my issue here is I see two answer choices that seem right to me. Am I approaching (B) too much of an assumption question, rather than what the flaw is DIRECTLY in that argument. I feel at the least, (B) is an assumption being made here - but perhaps not the flaw of the argument ultimately?
If you've read this far through my ramblings - thank you!
Would appreciate some help understanding.
I'm waffling between B/C here, and I don't see what makes (C) a better answer choice (even after looking at manhattan forums).
So here is me articulating the debate going on in my head.
(B) Isn't the argument assuming implicitly that when a wide range of opinions are being given that they are all being given adequate time, since he is using this claim as the foundation to support his entire argument? If this were not true, and he was simply stating a wide range of opinions are given - but some are given 5 seconds of coverage while others get entire segments devoted to them, wouldn't this be a pretty crappy claim to base his claim on?
I guess ultimately what I'm saying is, is this: hes assuming that wide range of coverage is sufficient to say media is not imposing opinions on people regarding important issues of the day - but if they are covered in the media in a skewed manner, it makes this point weak.
(C) I can see how this is happening. if the truth of claim one (major issues the media purveyed a range of opinion narrower than found among consumers of media, and claim two (then it would be true that the meia imposes opinions on people regarding important issues).
However, since the sufficient condition (first claim) is NOT true, he assumes that the necessary condition is not true, ultimately being a reversal flaw (negate sufficient simply means nothing triggers for the condition).
I guess my issue here is I see two answer choices that seem right to me. Am I approaching (B) too much of an assumption question, rather than what the flaw is DIRECTLY in that argument. I feel at the least, (B) is an assumption being made here - but perhaps not the flaw of the argument ultimately?
If you've read this far through my ramblings - thank you!
Would appreciate some help understanding.