Interesting question,
bpolley0. I'm happy to retort.
So, before I go into any sort of defense, I'd like you to look at the kind of things you're attacking D for, alongside the way you're supporting E.
When you attack D by saying things like "well, just because there's a trend doesn't mean it's affecting this store", you're essentially saying that D wouldn't PROVE a resolution, for 100% absolute sure. And you're right.
But then you turn right around and say, for E, "let's say that the milk is advertised for a penny" - but you don't KNOW it's being advertized for a penny!! You're making that up! Can't I just do what you did on D and say "well, just because you COULD advertize for a penny doesn't mean you WILL - maybe they advertized it and it was more expensive! Then it wouldn't resolve the discrepancy at all!"
What's good for the goose is good for the gander - you can't kill off D because it's not an ironclad guarantee and then support E for merely being an explanation in one possible scenario...
So how do you sort them out? First, it's important to realize that we
don't need a 100% guarantee of resolution - we just need something that seems like a pretty reasonable, even likely culprit for the difference. If supermarkets
throughout the entire nation have experienced a decline in yogurt sales, there's a pretty darn good likelihood that LargeCo is experiencing it too - we have no indication that LargeCo is somehow immune to general supermarket trends, and it's a big chain, not some random mom&pop that might be able to sit out the trend. It's not a promise, but it's
pretty likely that LargeCo is experiencing a general yogurt sales hit.
Now, for E, starting up an advertising campaign has absolutely zero connection to how expensive it is. Sure, it's possible that we're advertising something as cheaper, but it's just as possible that we're advertising something that just so happens to be more expensive (not that that would be what the ad focused on, but still). Neither scenario is more likely than the other, without additional information, so I can't just pick one. I have no idea how they relate. This can only explain the discrepancy if I
arbitrarily decide that LargeCo milk is in fact cheaper than the alternatives. (Notice that in D, it's not
arbitrary to think that LargeCo is probably experiencing the general trend - that's pretty darn likely.)
You can also break this situation down more specifically from the beginning, by being more precise about what the weird situation is. We have two things:
- 1) ads have more influence on yogurt-buying than they do on milk-buying
AND YET
2) we started ads for both, and milk sales have increased more than yogurt sales
Except, that's not really very precise. Influence on what exactly? How often people buy? The quantity in general? No, which brands they buy, when they do buy. Hm, so #1 isn't saying that ads have the power to make people buy that WEREN'T going to buy, it's just the power to drag people from one brand to another. AH HA - this is about MARKET SHARE. And #1 isn't about market share, that's about absolute sales increases....!!!
Okay, reframe the weirdness:
- 1) ads have more influence on yogurt brand MARKET SHARE than they do on milk brand MARKET SHARE
AND YET
2) we started ads for both, and milk SALES have increased more than yogurt SALES
How can we do something that's totally supposed to increase our MARKET SHARE of yogurt, and then have very little increase in sales? If the whole pie has gotten way way smaller, then even if we are taking up a much larger slice of it, our absolute sales numbers might have barely moved. Maybe the ads are working
perfectly, and all the people who are still buying yogurt are FLOCKING to our brand - it's just that there aren't as many yogurt buyers anymore.
What do you think?