So, first, let's make sure we're on the same page w/r/t our task - four of these choices are going to be somehow 'compatible' with the argument, while one will be 'incompatible'. This might sound like 'must be true'/'must be false', but it's a lot softer than than. 'Compatible' means that it could be true, while 'incompatible' means it's likely not to be true. I tend to think of an 'incompatible' answer as one that is
'most strongly supported to not be true'. So, for 'compatible' answers I'm looking for support that they are at least possible, while for an 'incompatible' answer, I'll be looking for support that it's unlikely to be true.
(A) - Is it possible that African music has had a
more powerful impact on the world than European music? Sure! The stimulus simply said that European music "has had ... a strong influence." Just 'strong', not necessarily 'the strongest'. Never even remotely suggests it. This answer is easily possible.
(B) - Is it possible that some other random thing, like military/economic expansion
partially explains the influence of the music? Sure! The stimulus said that all the musical internal coherence stuff was just "one reason why", not "the only reason why". Never even remotely suggests it. This answer is easily possible.
(C) - Is it possible that some other area's music (like China) has the same 'original function no longer defines the music' characteristic? Sure! The stimulus is all about this characteristic of European music, but it never says it's ONLY area to have music with that characteristic. Never even remotely suggests it. This answer is totally possible.
(E) - Is it possible that
some works of art lose their appeal when they are disconnected from their function? Totally! In fact, the whole stimulus is about the idea that European music is somehow
special and unusual in that it did NOT lose it's appeal. The very thing that makes it so special and influential is the fact that it didn't lose it's appeal when disconnected from the original function. If ALL works of art were perfectly appealing even after disconnecting from their original function, then why are we talking about that being a reason why European music has had such a strong influence?
This answer is not only possible, there's a fair bit of support for it.
Now, (D):
- The stimulus tells us that one of the reasons European music is so sophisticated (such a sophisticated achievement) is that it stands alone (is intelligible) even when presented independently of its original function.
The answer choice then says that music that is NOT like this, music that is instead unintelligible when presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated.
If that's true, and the
unintelligible music tends to be the most sophisticated, then it would be really weird to
use the fact that a music is INTELLIGIBLE as an explanation for why it is so sophisticated! Imagine if we knew that orchids tended to be among the most expensive flowers. Then I see a flower arrangement that is very inexpensive - it would be very weird to say that
one of the reasons it was so inexpensive was
because their were orchids in it. That doesn't make any sense
if orchids tend to be the most expensive flowers.
This answer choice is theoretically possible, if you twist the language really hard and come up with crazypants exceptions, but it's not very likely. In fact, it's pretty darn
unlikely. The stimulus and the answer choice don't seem to be talking about the same universe.
What do you think?