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How about non-Ivy Ivy types?

Are these stats known?

Assumptions:

Ivy League LSAT SD = Overall SD (probably not true)
Median=Mean
Change in applicants from 2010-11 cycle to 2011-12 cycle mirrors the change in 170+ applicants (probably about true)

Data, with links to sources:

SD: 10.26
# of Applicants & LSAT Means
Total applicants with LSAT > 170: 4052
Change in applicants from 2010-11 to 2011-2012 cycle: 155050 -> 129958

Based on these assumptions and the data above, one would expect that the Ivy League produces about 539 people who score more than 170 each year.

In the 2010-2011 cycle, there were 4052 170+ applicants, but this data is from the 2011-12 cycle, in which there was a substantial decrease in applicants. After adjusting based upon the decrease in applicants, we can say there were about 3396 170+ scorers in the 2011-2012 cycle.

So, if these assumptions hold true, about 16% of 170+ applicants come from Ivy League institutions. That means 84% come from non-Ivy's.

If the most unlikely assumption - that the Ivy League SD = the overall SD - proves false, which I expect it would, I don't think it would have a substantial effect on the results. If there is a difference, I'm almost sure the SD would be smaller (because there's less room to move around at the higher means), which would mean that there are less 170+ applicants than I have predicted.

So, if my math skills aren't as bad as I think they are...

TL;DR: We can somewhat safely conclude that at most 16% of 170+ applicants come from Ivy's.

Excel #'s for anyone who cares/wants to check my work:
Under the same assumptions, AT MOST 39% of 175+ applicants are from Ivy's.

But the question is "Ivy or ivy-type schools" --- e.g., roughly the top 15 national universities and the top 5 liberal arts colleges.

In the grand scheme of higher ed, there are a lot more people graduating from non-ivies than from ivy/ivy-like schools. So isn't it more a question about whether ivy/ivy-like grads are overrepresented in the 170+ pool?