Prep 33 Section 2, # 26, 27 (Finding them Really Difficult)
Posted: Mon Oct 15, 2012 11:11 pm
Prep 33 Section 2, # 26, 27
For 26, I picked A and then C as the answer.
With regard to question 26, my first question is why is A not the answer?
Where's the evidence?
Line 52 states that the approach underlying modern evidence law began to prevail soon after Bentham's death and that it has now become a presumption and not a rule. Whilst there is not specifically the word "replaced" I understand that Bentham's nonexclusionary principle has become more than just a norm, beyond that it has become a presumption. Would the fact that Bentham's nonexclusionary principle "prevails," except that it allows more exclusions, not mean replaced? almost, I mean...
Also, isn't C correct?
I do not see any errors in this answer.
Also, with regard to B, how would you justify that the modern law is less rigid than was the 18th century evidence law?
It may be just as rigid, except that it's rigid in the other way around, that it is nonexclusionary. It can be more rigid in that regard.
I really would like some help.
Also, I do not understand the last sentence when it states, "demoted from a rule to a presumption."
If I understood this correctly, it should instead state "promoted" or some sort of word with a positive connotation since it has become the implicit presumption that people do not even have to think about it consciously like a rule, but it has not become a presumption.
Why is that being "demoted"?
For 27,
Is B wrong because of "outmoded"? since the modern evidence law is not outmoded?
Is C wrong because the passage is not mainly concerned with "justifying" the inadequacies of the current evidence law?
I really really find this passage difficult and would highly appreciate your help.
Thanks,
Best Wishes
For 26, I picked A and then C as the answer.
With regard to question 26, my first question is why is A not the answer?
Where's the evidence?
Line 52 states that the approach underlying modern evidence law began to prevail soon after Bentham's death and that it has now become a presumption and not a rule. Whilst there is not specifically the word "replaced" I understand that Bentham's nonexclusionary principle has become more than just a norm, beyond that it has become a presumption. Would the fact that Bentham's nonexclusionary principle "prevails," except that it allows more exclusions, not mean replaced? almost, I mean...
Also, isn't C correct?
I do not see any errors in this answer.
Also, with regard to B, how would you justify that the modern law is less rigid than was the 18th century evidence law?
It may be just as rigid, except that it's rigid in the other way around, that it is nonexclusionary. It can be more rigid in that regard.
I really would like some help.
Also, I do not understand the last sentence when it states, "demoted from a rule to a presumption."
If I understood this correctly, it should instead state "promoted" or some sort of word with a positive connotation since it has become the implicit presumption that people do not even have to think about it consciously like a rule, but it has not become a presumption.
Why is that being "demoted"?
For 27,
Is B wrong because of "outmoded"? since the modern evidence law is not outmoded?
Is C wrong because the passage is not mainly concerned with "justifying" the inadequacies of the current evidence law?
I really really find this passage difficult and would highly appreciate your help.
Thanks,
Best Wishes