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Is the answer saying that because only 75% of the 60 problems cleared up after 50 weeks of therapy, the therapist cannot conclude that 50 weeks is the cure for all psychological problems?

For example, if X was a part of the 25% of the problems studied that did not clear up after 50 weeks then someone with suffering from X might need more than 50 weeks, therefore, 50 weeks cannot said to be all that most people need.

How could I have attacked this problem? I guess the presence of percentages should have tipped me off?

No the answer is saying the argument that because the majority problems clear up after 50 weeks does mean that the majority of people have one of the 75% problems. lets take it down to lowest number. A group of problems A,B,C,D if A,B,C clear up after 50 weeks does that mean that mean that in the group D,E,F,G 3 of 4 will be cured in 50 week? no because they could be and uneven distribution of problems ie D,E,F could have D wilst G has A at the end of 50 weeks only A is cured wilst D,E,F still have their problem.