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I narrowed this question down to C and D and I ended up choosing the right answer but it seems like both are supported by the stimulus.

D: stuarts work was not entirely free from west's influence. I see how this is the right answer because even the opposing view states that Stuarts work mentioned West once.

C: Stuarts contemporaries were not influenced by west. The stimulus also says none of stuarts contemporaries used West's terminology. So wouldn't that imply that none of them were influenced by him?

I would appreciate your help! Thanks!

You can be influenced by someone but not use their terminology. Like how Snoop Dogg influenced me years ago - though I never said a thizzle.

Well couldn't you say the same for D? You can mention someone but not be influenced by them? I am just really trying to grasp the reasoning behind the question and answer.

Thank you!

I don't have the question in front of me anymore, but I don't think it works backwards - since to refer to them is to be influenced by them in at least a minimal way. Stuart had to read West's words to use them.

Does that clear it up?

Yes that clears it up! Thanks