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Hi all. This is logic game 3 out of Preptest C, Section I (according to the Kaplan book I have here).

The key thing that confuses me is the statement that "No two attractions of the same type are included in any park." Doesn't this mean that each attraction is used only once? This is obviously wrong, because the first rule states that one attraction is used in two parks.

Can someone explain to me 1) why this does not mean the same attraction is used only once, 2) what it actually means?

Thank you so very much!!!

PS: I can post the whole game and change some things if no one has this preptest.

The statement means that none of the three parks (individually) can include more than one of a particular type of attraction. For example, Jessup cannot have two fountains, two gardens, two museums, etc. Had LSAC intended it otherwise, the phrasing would have been closer to the following:
No two parks include an attraction of the same type.

Thank you very much!!