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Was going through the LR bible and found a question where they have a Stimulus with a premise starting with "many." the correct answer has been paraphrased but it starts with "some." are they saying that some = many? or does many include some, thus allowing some to appear as the right answer.

Thanks.

they are synonomous for the lsat. some is at least one, many is two or more in normal discourse. lsat is different. thats what i understood when i took the lsat years ago.

Generally Many is more than one, some is at least one.

Expanding on that, many and some are different than most. Most is 50.000001%. Many is just two or a couple.

...

wtf does "generally" mean? for the lsat, i dont remember the distinction mattering whatsoever. in real life, it matters. for the test writers, it doesnt matter. the two mean the same thing on the lsat unless something has changed in the last few years....which it hasnt.

lostjake wrote:Expanding on that, many and some are different than most. Most is 50.000001%. Many is just two or a couple.

thanks for trying to explain what most means. children raised by wolves know what most means.

According to the English language and logic many is more than one, unless there is only one. Some is one or more. Depending on the stimulus it is dependant.

hence why i distinguished normal discourse form the lsat. can you tell us what zero means?

sirhitch wrote:

lostjake wrote:Expanding on that, many and some are different than most. Most is 50.000001%. Many is just two or a couple.

thanks for trying to explain what most means. children raised by wolves know what most means.

Sorry for my ignorance. I guess I assumed that this person was having trouble with qualifiers and such, considering he posted the question. Back into my wolf cave.

Exactly the same thing by any definition based on logic.

I'll stand corrected on this one

sirhitch wrote:they are synonomous for the lsat. some is at least one, many is two or more in normal discourse. lsat is different. thats what i understood when i took the lsat years ago.

this was the answer I was looking for. As I have gone thru LR I have noted this "LSAT world" vs "real world" point. Thanks.

lostjake,

There's nothing to correct. You are exactly right: even on the LSAT, "many" means "more than one." There's a rule of thumb that "many" = "some" --and it's a good rule--but strictly speaking, "some" just means "more than none" or "one or more." This holds both on the LSAT and the "real world."

Wasn't willing to get into a battle about it, but thanx

Actually, strictly speaking, "many" = one or more in several areas. For example in some formal logic setups or programs, the definition is:

Many - A multiplicity with no upper limit, either 0..* or *

Also, if you just take the example: Cloverville has a population of 2. Many people from Cloverville like to go to Daisyland.

In this case, the "many" people from Cloverville can refer to one person or two people.

Na_Swatch wrote:Actually, strictly speaking, "many" = one or more in several areas. For example in some formal logic setups or programs, the definition is:

Many - A multiplicity with no upper limit, either 0..* or *

Also, if you just take the example: Cloverville has a population of 2. Many people from Cloverville like to go to Daisyland.

In this case, the "many" people from Cloverville can refer to one person or two people.

I agree that it is relative to the size of the referent group, and I was actually thinking about what "many" might mean for a group of two -- but I still feel it implies plurality. I could be wrong.

EDIT: thinking about it some more, doesn't "multiplicity" necessarily imply plurality? There's no upper limit, to be sure, but that term suggests that we are talking about more than one element.

I like "not all".

Could mean 1 out of 100 or 99 out of a 100!

My mind is blown!

jetlagz28 wrote:I like "not all".

Could mean 1 out of 100 or 99 out of a 100!

My mind is blown!

Could also mean 0 out of 100. =)

op, to make you feel confident- i took a lot of pt's up til about 2003. i scored constantly in the 170's. i have never ever ever ever thought twice about the difference between some and many on the lsat. the points i lost on the lsat were not due to some or many mistakes. for test purposes, they are the same thing. period.

autarkh wrote:

jetlagz28 wrote:I like "not all".

Could mean 1 out of 100 or 99 out of a 100!

My mind is blown!

Could also mean 0 out of 100. =)

No wonder I didn't do well....

wtf does "generally" mean? for the lsat, i dont remember the distinction mattering whatsoever. in real life, it matters. for the test writers, it doesnt matter. the two mean the same thing on the lsat unless something has changed in the last few years....which it hasnt.

thanks for trying to explain what most means. children raised by wolves know what most means.

hence why i distinguished normal discourse form the lsat. can you tell us what zero means?

LOL... Tell us what bitch means lostjake!

wtf does "generally" mean? for the lsat, i dont remember the distinction mattering whatsoever. in real life, it matters. for the test writers, it doesnt matter. the two mean the same thing on the lsat unless something has changed in the last few years....which it hasnt.

thanks for trying to explain what most means. children raised by wolves know what most means.

hence why i distinguished normal discourse form the lsat. can you tell us what zero means?

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lostjake wrote:Generally Many is more than one, some is at least one.

Actually, "some" logically means "more than zero" to define it a little more precisely. An example would be "It is not the case that no/none." That would be the same as saying "some". In logic, you must think in strict opposites; even a fraction is opposite of zero.

for the purposes of logic, quantity is described as 'None' 'All' or 'Some'. if you're trying to figure out where 'many' lies on that spectrum...you have more important things to worry about.