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Is this correst?

Legal--> not immoral

immoral--> not legal


THNAKS!

Don't get to stuck up on moral logic.

The argument is straightforward: nothing that the law permits is immoral

(A) violates this right away: some lawful actions are immoral.
(B) is irrelevant (it would be a flaw if it were a logical deduction - denying the antecedent, blah blah - but it's not a logical deduction. It's a standalone statement which does not violate the original argument).
(C) irrelevant
(D) adds support to the argument
(E) irrelevant

Sorry to be a little late to the conversation, but I was wondering how you interpreted "law does not cover all circumstances in which one person morally wrongs another" to mean "some lawful actions are moral"? I kept reading this as "there are some moral actions that the law does not deem permissible or impermissible," which I thought could be consistent with the statement that "the law does not permit anything that is immoral." Thanks in advance!