https://www.nytimes.com/2016/07/12/upsh ... tings.htmlobjctnyrhnr wrote: ↑Mon Jun 15, 2020 10:11 amSo maybe I wasn’t clear enough on the question. Yes, black people get fatally shot at 2.5 the rate of others per your source data. But this data doesn’t adjust for violent crime rate.nixy wrote: ↑Mon Jun 15, 2020 9:06 amThese were in the top 5 results from googling.
https://www.washingtonpost.com/nation/2 ... -ferguson/
https://www.citylab.com/equity/2019/08/ ... ta/595528/
They both seem pretty clear on the numbers?
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_an ... statistics
Black Americans in 2008 were also responsible for over 6 times the murder of their population representation and over 8 times for burglary.
Logically, notwithstanding any race-based animus, wouldn’t one expect a population that is disproportionately charged with violent crime to also be disproportionately involved in altercations with the police that turn violent?
Put another way: would the reason that police might draw their guns far more often in high crime urban area X with a large black population relative to low crime suburban area Y with a large white population be caused by the fact that they are racist...or maybe because the violent crime rate is much higher in area x?
I’m just saying where is the data that adjusts for these facts? Seems that many are automatically assume racism is the cause—and certainly it’s quite possible that it factors in—but I’m just not sure the data when taken in the aggregate necessarily proves it.
Just because a difference in race might correlate with the difference that those sources highlight, it obviously doesn’t automatically follow that the racial difference is the cause (lsat logic and all that).
Obviously draw your own conclusions, more research is necessary, etc. But Roland Fryer is black, won the Bates medal, etc. This study isn't conservative agitprop.