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If there is a lien on personal property, such as a car, and the owner sells the car to a buyer but does not tell the buyer about the lien, what can the lien holder do? Could he repossess the car from the good faith buyer?

This is a secured credit question. There's a whole class about it. It depends on more facts not present here.

well this came up in the notes of my property casebook. What are the general common law principles for this scenario?

This isn't a common law question. It's a UCC Article 9 question, and you should not go down this road