Civ Pro Confusion - Someone help me understand aggregating
Posted: Wed Nov 28, 2012 9:10 pm
1L here, seeing exams looming and trying not to panic. I feel pretty good (as well as I think can be expected) about property and torts, but civ pro makes my brain freeze up. Professor is not particularly receptive to questions, and I'm getting wrapped up in my own head about it. I feel like it is like math where I understand all the individual steps, but can't manage to keep them organized in my head and figure out how to apply it all.
Can anybody help me? I have the text book, the horn book, and the E&Es. Waiting to get Acing Civ Pro in the mail.
I'm currently working through my outline right now and some hypos, and for some reason I cannot grasp aggregation.
Say you've got 1 plaintiff who wants to sue for a state negligence claim in federal court against two different defendants. They are all from different states, so diversity is met, and it arises out of the same transaction, so as I understand it, the defendants can be joined under rule 20. She has $80k in damages against one, which meets the amount in controversy, but only $10k against the second. I cannot seem to grasp the concept of whether or not it is sufficient for only one party to meet the amount in controversy and "pull in" the second, or not? I feel good about joinder, but subject matter jurisdiction baffles me.
I would very much appreciate it if anyone could help my poor unhappy brain.
Can anybody help me? I have the text book, the horn book, and the E&Es. Waiting to get Acing Civ Pro in the mail.
I'm currently working through my outline right now and some hypos, and for some reason I cannot grasp aggregation.
Say you've got 1 plaintiff who wants to sue for a state negligence claim in federal court against two different defendants. They are all from different states, so diversity is met, and it arises out of the same transaction, so as I understand it, the defendants can be joined under rule 20. She has $80k in damages against one, which meets the amount in controversy, but only $10k against the second. I cannot seem to grasp the concept of whether or not it is sufficient for only one party to meet the amount in controversy and "pull in" the second, or not? I feel good about joinder, but subject matter jurisdiction baffles me.
I would very much appreciate it if anyone could help my poor unhappy brain.