Unconstitutional Seizure under Plain View Doctrine?
Posted: Thu Dec 15, 2011 2:09 am
I get that in order for a warrantless seizure of an item in a home under the Plain View Doctrine to be valid, the entry into the home must be valid under a 4th Amendment analysis.
But lets say an officer is walking by a house and sees illicit drugs laying on a coffee table through a window (and let's assume he's not in the home's curtilege) and goes and knocks on the door and announces without a warrant. Let's also assume the person in the home is a complete idiot and opens the door and the officer sees the drugs on the table. With nothing else being said, is this enough to seize the drugs, or does there need to be consent/exigencies to actually enter the home before the officer can seize the drugs?
I guess I'm just trying to figure out if a "lawful entry" into the home is required under circumstances such as that. Our professor gave us a practice exam question similar to that and I'm not completely sure what the answer is.
I apologize for the stupid question...again.
But lets say an officer is walking by a house and sees illicit drugs laying on a coffee table through a window (and let's assume he's not in the home's curtilege) and goes and knocks on the door and announces without a warrant. Let's also assume the person in the home is a complete idiot and opens the door and the officer sees the drugs on the table. With nothing else being said, is this enough to seize the drugs, or does there need to be consent/exigencies to actually enter the home before the officer can seize the drugs?
I guess I'm just trying to figure out if a "lawful entry" into the home is required under circumstances such as that. Our professor gave us a practice exam question similar to that and I'm not completely sure what the answer is.
I apologize for the stupid question...again.