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In Shaffer v. Heitner, how come general jurisdiction wasn't applied to the D if the D was a Delaware corporation? Doesn't state of incorporation indicate a strong enough presence in the state for a court to exercise general jurisdiction over it? In other words, why did the P have to rely on quasi in rem jurisdiction when general jurisdiction could have been used?

Any help would be appreciated! thank you in advance!

Remember, in that case P wasn't bringing his claims against the company directly, he was bringing it against the officers and directors of the corporation.

Awesome, thanks much!