The meaning of PPEP and RPL?
Posted: Mon Mar 08, 2021 4:48 am
I have been wondering the statistical meaning behind the PPEP and RPL numbers and how that relates to us - so for firms within the v10/20 range, say traditional v10 (excluding Wachtell/Cravath/SC), plus Cleary, Weil, Debevoise - I am assuming since those firms are peer firms, their billing rate should be somewhat similar, then why would there be differences in terms of RPL?
Revenue Per Lawyer=total revenue of the firm/number of attorneys within the firm;
Revenue per lawyer also=lawyers' average billable hours * lawyers' average billing rate.
if billing rates are similar (since they are peer firms and in direct competitions with each other), are the differences mostly due to average billable hours? so the average lawyer at say kirkland billed more hours than cleary/debevoise attorney hence their firm RPL is higher? there can be other reasons too like maybe some firms offers more discounts to get client, but I can't stop thinking that RPL is low key a scary concept - the higher the number is, it just means the average lawyers are billing higher number of hours ...? bc after all what are revenues for lawyers - billable hours
I understand PPEP can be more complicated, but so far it just sounds like, within the same ranks of firms, the more leveraged the firms is, the higher PPEP number could be (larger number of associates working on matters, but less equity partners to share the profit) - and KE PW and STB and plus other traditional wall street firms are all pretty leveraged, and their PPEPs are higher than their peers like Gibson, which is less leveraged (according to a report I read)?
Anyone has any thoughts on this? based on this logic, should we choose the firms with lower RPL and lower PPEP (within the similar tiers ofc)? pls don't laugh at me if you find this a dumb logic
Revenue Per Lawyer=total revenue of the firm/number of attorneys within the firm;
Revenue per lawyer also=lawyers' average billable hours * lawyers' average billing rate.
if billing rates are similar (since they are peer firms and in direct competitions with each other), are the differences mostly due to average billable hours? so the average lawyer at say kirkland billed more hours than cleary/debevoise attorney hence their firm RPL is higher? there can be other reasons too like maybe some firms offers more discounts to get client, but I can't stop thinking that RPL is low key a scary concept - the higher the number is, it just means the average lawyers are billing higher number of hours ...? bc after all what are revenues for lawyers - billable hours
I understand PPEP can be more complicated, but so far it just sounds like, within the same ranks of firms, the more leveraged the firms is, the higher PPEP number could be (larger number of associates working on matters, but less equity partners to share the profit) - and KE PW and STB and plus other traditional wall street firms are all pretty leveraged, and their PPEPs are higher than their peers like Gibson, which is less leveraged (according to a report I read)?
Anyone has any thoughts on this? based on this logic, should we choose the firms with lower RPL and lower PPEP (within the similar tiers ofc)? pls don't laugh at me if you find this a dumb logic