PT 60, Section 1, LR, #22 Sufficient Assumption Question

secretad
Posts: 209
Joined: Tue Jan 04, 2011 11:26 pm

PT 60, Section 1, LR, #22 Sufficient Assumption Question

Postby secretad » Sat May 14, 2011 3:07 pm

This is the problem with social conventions.

I eliminated every answer choice but A and got it right.

However, I would like a better technique. I just feel like if I insert that assumption into the argument, I would not be able to validly conclude that it is "PROBABLE" that the invention of money occurred independently in more than one society.

secretad
Posts: 209
Joined: Tue Jan 04, 2011 11:26 pm

Re: PT 60, Section 1, LR, #22 Sufficient Assumption Question

Postby secretad » Sun May 15, 2011 12:08 am

Bump for this frustrating question for me. How can that assumption make that conclusion probable? I know it says SEEM probable, but that is probable nonetheless correct?

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suspicious android
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Re: PT 60, Section 1, LR, #22 Sufficient Assumption Question

Postby suspicious android » Sun May 15, 2011 1:19 am

Money is universal, or maybe nearly universal (premise).
Money is not innate, it must be developed (premise).
Some cultures developed in perfect isolation (assumption).

Therefore, money has probably independently developed several times. How else do these isolated cultures get money?

There are only two possibilities, money was developed once and it spread to every other money using culture, which is almost every culture; or it developed multiple times. The latter seems more likely than the former given the premises and our commonsense knowledge of the world.




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