Is the answer saying that because only 75% of the 60 problems cleared up after 50 weeks of therapy, the therapist cannot conclude that 50 weeks is the cure for all psychological problems?
For example, if X was a part of the 25% of the problems studied that did not clear up after 50 weeks then someone with suffering from X might need more than 50 weeks, therefore, 50 weeks cannot said to be all that most people need.
How could I have attacked this problem? I guess the presence of percentages should have tipped me off?
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No the answer is saying the argument that because the majority problems clear up after 50 weeks does mean that the majority of people have one of the 75% problems. lets take it down to lowest number. A group of problems A,B,C,D if A,B,C clear up after 50 weeks does that mean that mean that in the group D,E,F,G 3 of 4 will be cured in 50 week? no because they could be and uneven distribution of problems ie D,E,F could have D wilst G has A at the end of 50 weeks only A is cured wilst D,E,F still have their problem.
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