PT 39 game 2

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PT 39 game 2

Postby thegor1987 » Mon Jan 11, 2010 7:23 pm

First question of game two asks what is the maximum number of sessions attended by 'at least one employee'

Does anyone else think it is awkward the way this question is phrased for the game? I mean ALL the employees have to attend 2 meetings. Is this a little psychological trick used by LSAC, because I don't see the logical purpose of phrasing it like this.

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Atlas LSAT Teacher

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Joined: Tue May 12, 2009 10:18 am

Re: PT 39 game 2

Postby Atlas LSAT Teacher » Mon Jan 11, 2010 7:41 pm

Yeah, it is tricky. From your post, I'm not sure if you read it correctly, so in case you got fooled: it's possible for a session to have several people attend a session, leaving some sessions unattended (at least by M S and T). So, the question is asking you to "spread out" their attendance so that as many sessions are attended as possible. If you didn't need that explanation, sorry.

Here's a diagram and explanation for that game: ... -t277.html

Have fun.

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