Comment 2 states ... "the extortion of a 'modification' without legitimate commercial reason is ineffective as a violation of the duty of good faith."
I'm having a little trouble comprehending this concept. Can someone clear this up for me?
(Study Tips, Dealing With Stress, Maintaining a Social Life, Financial Aid, Internships, Bar Exam, Careers in Law . . . )
2 posts • Page 1 of 1
- Posts: 53
- Joined: Mon Sep 28, 2009 12:44 pm
Nevermind. I was reading it incorrectly.
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 4 guests