Just to be clear, if two people are adversely possessing a property at the same time, let's say 2 years, is the period "tacked" to 4 years? Or, do they have to be subsequent possessors in privity? I.e., instead of occupying at the same time, one occupies for 2 years and passes it to another for another 2?
Or.. am I overthinking?

Thanks.
Edit: Oh wait, privity means passing on possession? So the latter, correct?