I am reviewing possessory estates and future interests, and a question has arisen. Is there a Term of Years that is a freehold estate, which would be alienable, devisable, and descendible, as distinguished from a Term of Years non-freehold estate (i.e. tenancy), which would not be not alienable, devisable, and descendible (though could be subleased or assigned)? Or are they all the same thing?
It seems like this may affect future interests analyses.
(Study Tips, Dealing With Stress, Maintaining a Social Life, Financial Aid, Internships, Bar Exam, Careers in Law . . . )
2 posts • Page 1 of 1
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 5 guests